Nuclear Medical Physics Part 2 Qualifying Examination Exam Prep
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Free ABR-NMP-P2 Practice Questions

10 exam-style questions with answers and explanations, straight from our 1,030-question bank. Tap an answer to check yourself. When you're ready, take the scored version in the free practice test.

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The ABR-NMP-P2 exam has 130 questions and runs 4 hours 1 minute.

These 10 free ABR-NMP-P2 questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the Nuclear Medical Physics Part 2 Qualifying Examination blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.

Domain 1: Radiation Protection, Safety, Professionalism and Ethics

Question 1

An adult treated with I-131 is clinically ready for discharge from a U.S. NRC-licensed facility. A documented, patient-specific assessment predicts a total effective dose equivalent of 3.2 mSv to the most-exposed other individual, with lower doses to everyone else. The proposed home precautions are feasible, and the patient can follow them. No additional license restriction applies. Under 10 CFR 35.75, which disposition is appropriate?

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Correct answer: D - Authorize release with instructions, including written precautions, to keep other individuals' doses as low as reasonably achievable.

Question 2

At the end of an HDR brachytherapy fraction, the console indicates that the Ir-192 source is retracted. The room monitor remains elevated, and a functioning portable survey meter localizes a strong field to the patient's applicator. The prescribed external emergency-retraction attempt does not change the readings. The trained authorized team is present. What takes priority now?

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Correct answer: A - Use the rehearsed emergency procedure to separate the patient from the unretracted source.

Domain 2: PET & Hybrid

Question 3

A crescent-shaped cold band crosses the liver dome on attenuation-corrected FDG PET but is absent from the non-attenuation-corrected images. Respiratory misregistration places CT lung over part of the liver's emission volume. Reconstructing the same PET events after correcting this alignment removes the band. What happened in the original reconstruction?

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Correct answer: B - CT lung coefficients caused insufficient compensation for attenuation of hepatic coincidences.

Question 4

For a 72-kg patient injected with F-18 FDG at 09:00, the pre-injection assay is 320 MBq and the post-injection syringe residual is 20 MBq; both assay values have already been corrected to 09:00. There is no extravasation or additional residual. PET begins at 10:50. The image activity concentration, decay-corrected to scan start rather than injection time, is 6.25 kBq/mL in a lesion. Using an F-18 half-life of 110 minutes and conventional body-weight normalization, what SUV should be reported?

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Correct answer: C - 3.00

Question 5

A PET electronics upgrade improves coincidence timing resolution from 600 ps to 300 ps without changing the crystal dimensions or ring geometry. Matched, high-count point-source tests show essentially unchanged reconstructed spatial FWHM. A reviewer calls the upgrade ineffective because the spatial FWHM did not halve. Select the technically sound response.

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Correct answer: D - Better along-line-of-response localization can reduce image noise without halving the point-source FWHM.

Domain 3: Single photon imaging systems including scintillation cameras, solid state cameras and hybrids

Question 6

Before bone imaging, a dual-head gamma camera develops a focal count deficit on an extrinsic flood. Both intrinsic floods are normal. With a verified uniform source, the deficit follows one collimator when that collimator is transferred between heads; inspection confirms bent septa. An undamaged, compatible replacement is available. Choose the appropriate restriction on clinical use.

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Correct answer: A - Remove the damaged collimator from service and qualify the replacement with the required QC.

Question 7

An I-131 SPECT phantom study using a low-energy collimator shows star-shaped streaks around a hot source. The pattern persists at low count rates and with adequate angular sampling. A narrower window around 364 keV reduces counts but leaves the streaks. Which acquisition change most directly addresses the source of this artifact?

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Correct answer: C - Use high-energy collimation with septa appropriate for the I-131 photon emissions.

Domain 4: Radiation measurements including dose calibrators, well counters, survey meters, thyroid probes

Question 8

A wipe sample produces a background-subtracted signal of 34 counts. For this validated counting method and measurement configuration, the critical level LC is 23 net counts and the detection limit LD is 49 net counts. The method uses 5% false-positive and false-negative error probabilities. A reviewer marks the result 'not detected' because 34 is below 49. How should that decision be revised?

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Correct answer: B - Report detection; LC governs this decision, whereas LD describes the method's detection capability.

Question 9

A well-counter assay records 10,000 gross counts in 100 seconds. A separate, matched blank records 4,000 counts in 200 seconds. Background is stable, the measurements are independent and Poisson-distributed, and decay, dead time, and timing uncertainty are negligible. Which net count rate and one-standard-deviation counting uncertainty belong in the assay result?

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Correct answer: C - 80.0 ± 1.05 counts/s

Domain 5: Clinical Procedures

Question 10

Relative stress Rb-82 PET perfusion images appear homogeneous. Absolute stress myocardial blood flow, however, is below the laboratory's validated reference interval in all three coronary territories, while resting flow is within its reference interval. Vasodilator preparation, tracer delivery, dynamic sampling, motion correction, and calibration have been verified. Which conclusion reconciles the relative and quantitative findings?

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Correct answer: D - Relative normalization can conceal global impairment of vasodilator flow without identifying its specific vascular cause.

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